AP Psychology Premium Prep - The Princeton Review 2021
Chapter Drills: Answers and Explanations
Part V: Content Review for the AP Psychology Exam
CHAPTER 1
Understand the Question/Key Words Drill
3.What’s a scientist who’s into the physical basis of psychological phenomena called?
10.One of the primary tools of the school of structuralism was
18.Binocular cues help you see depth because
35.What type of effect is this: person only remembers words from the beginning and end of a list?
47.The recognition-by-components theory asserts that we categorize objects by breaking them down into their component parts and then
We break stuff down and then do what?
56.The fact that V. can ignore the crowd is called what?
70.Which of the following was true of Stanley Milgram’s studies of obedierice?
88.In their discussions of the process of development, the advocates of the importance of nurture in the nature-nurture controversy emphasize which of the following?
Nurture emphasizes what?
Easy Questions Drill
1.Understand the Question/Key Words: Freud = which perspective?
Predict the Answer: Psychoanalytic
Answer: (B) Easy enough.
2.Understand the Question/Key Words: When you stop using a drug, you go through what?
Predict the Answer: Withdrawal
Answer: (C) Be careful not to rush through and accidentally pick another answer.
3.Understand the Question/Key Words: Conditioning: when the dog salivates at what?
Predict the Answer: The light without the food
Answer: (B) Watch for (A) and (C). Both are wrong, but close enough to trip up someone who is rushing. If you picked (D) or (E), better hit the books.
4.Understand the Question/Key Words: Circle basic unit and nervous system.
Predict the Answer: Neuron
Answer: (D) Watch out for the others—they are all parts of the neuron.
5.Understand the Question/Key Words: Circle methods of research and central to behaviorist.
Predict the Answer: Experimenting
Answer: (E) Again, if you don’t know, start reviewing. POE should easily get rid of (B), (C), and (D).
Medium Questions Drill
33.Understand the Question/Key Words: What regulates hunger and thirst?
Predict the Answer: I’m not sure, but I know what it’s not (use POE).
Answer: (C) Using POE, you should have been able to get rid of at least (D) and (E), and most likely (A) (review Chapter 7).
34.Understand the Question/Key Words: Which psychologists were into viewing things as part of a whole?
Predict the Answer: Don’t remember, but I know all the main perspectives well (use POE).
Answer: (D) If you know your perspectives well, you could easily have gotten rid of at least (A), (B), and (C). Cognitive socialist doesn’t make sense, so the answer must be (D).
35.Understand the Question/Key Words: What’s wrong with the study: Survey comp sci class to find out who in the school has computers.
Predict the Answer: The sample is biased.
Answer: (B) It’s the closest answer to yours. Use POE for the rest.
36.Understand the Question/Key Words: Looking out the window stimulates which two parts of the brain?
Predict the Answer: Occipital and another (use POE)
Answer: (E) Knowing occipital gets it down to two answer choices. If you don’t know it from there, guess and move on (review Chapter 7).
37.Understand the Question/Key Words: Circle behaviorism and true of.
Predict the Answer: Experimenting, everything is learned, consequences
Answer: (C) It’s the closest answer to yours. Choice (A) is psychodynamic, (B) is a sort of cognitive behaviorism, (D) is wrong, and (E) is silly.
CHAPTER 2
Put It All Together
Our Sample Essay
Stress can have serious psychological and physiological consequences. Although one cannot completely avoid stress, it is essential to our health and well-being that we learn effective coping strategies to better manage stress. Many things in our lives are very stress-inducing. These stressors can range from major life-changing events such as marriage, divorce, moving, or the death of a loved one to simple daily hassles like traffic or family arguments.
From a physiological standpoint, when an individual is stressed, the sympathetic nervous system responds with readiness for “fight or flight.” In normal circumstances, this elevated level of stimulation abates when the perceived danger disappears. But what if it doesn’t disappear? Then, the body does allow some systems to return to normal—breathing, heart rate—but other systems remain at the ready—elevated levels of sugar and adrenaline in the blood, for example. The greatest danger of prolonged exposure to stress, according to Hans Selye’s general adaptation syndrome, is that the strain placed on the body, coupled with elevated hormone levels caused by stress reactions, can lead to cardiovascular disease and can weaken a person’s immunity to disease.
From a psychological standpoint, stress represents a challenge to the way that we think and the way that we behave. It is very easy, when struggling with major and minor stresses, to feel defeated or overwhelmed by what it might take to overcome the challenge. Stress is more than just the occurrence of a stressful event. It is also an individual’s vulnerability to stress and, according to Richard Lazarus, the importance of the stressful event to the individual. For example, the death of a grandparent can be a highly stressful occurrence. However, if the death occurs after a long illness, it may be more of a relief.
There are three main types of events that contribute to stress in an individual’s life: daily hassles, life events, and catastrophes. Daily hassles typically have a low level of personal importance, yet individuals may still react strongly to these minor stressors if they are, at the time, highly vulnerable to stress. If a person already endured a great deal of stress that day, new stress becomes, in a sense, cumulative, serving to increase already present physiological stress responses.
A life event is any event that requires change and adaptation. Again, the level of importance and the vulnerability of the person will impact the amount of stress the person experiences. Many people experience extreme physiological reactions to life events such as the death of a spouse. They may be unable to eat or sleep, most likely because the body is in this state of pseudo-alertness.
Finally, catastrophes—rare, unexpected disasters such as earthquakes or floods—can lead to physiological stress responses such as post-traumatic stress disorder (for example, nightmares or flashbacks about a past catastrophe). Most individuals tend to experience some degree of stress response to catastrophes, because the events are often so extreme and overwhelming.
To deal with a stressful event such as a catastrophe, many people unconsciously employ a coping strategy such as denial or repression. Denial, not accepting that a catastrophe has actually occurred, is one way that individuals stave off the full impact of what has just happened. Some theorize that having the knowledge of an event such as a catastrophe and denying it allows the body to gradually process the stress that it could not handle all at once.
Repression, the ability of the mind to keep anxiety-producing thoughts in the subconscious, allows individuals to attempt to deal with a catastrophic situation without thinking through the many horrifying ramifications. As a means of coping, repression often allows individuals to function, whereas full awareness might impede their ability to respond as needed.
In conclusion, the body and mind are an amazing team—working together they are able to cope with difficult and stressful situations while still functioning. However, in a society wrought with stress, it is possible that individuals may lose this adaptive strength, breaking down under the “stress” of a constant need to cope with stress.
CHAPTER 4
Drill 1: Understand the Question/Key Words
7.Psychoanalytic vs. behaviorist: How are they different?
22.What technology should you use to look at different regions of the brain?
39.The somatosensory cortex is the primary area of the
The circled words mean what?
58.To know what a picture is, the info has to get to which part of the brain?
(Answer: occipital lobe)
78.What’s it called when someone doesn’t give false positives—if there is no sound, there is no report?
89.The lower the p-value of a study, the
Lower p-value means what?
Drill 2: Predict the Answer
5.How will Thomas learn to make a big meal using the stuff he knows?
He can link together what he knows (called chaining, if you remember that).
22.What does the endocrine system do?
It secretes hormones into the body.
35.What big thing did Wilhelm Wundt do for psychology?
He created the first psychology lab in 1879, and he is considered the father of experimental psychology.
45.Why do taste buds need to be able to replace themselves?
Otherwise, if you burned your mouth, you would lose your sense of taste forever.
72.What technology should you use to study brain waves?
Electrosomething…(Electroencephalogram or EEG, if you remember)
Drill 3: Using All Three
15.Of the following variables, which typically requires a measurement that is more complex?
Understand the Question/Key Words: Which variable requires more complex measurement?
Predict the Answer: The complex one—not categorical.
Answer: (B) It’s continuous. Choice (A) is out, (C) doesn’t make sense, and (D) and (E) aren’t those kinds of variables.
35.Which of the following most accurately states the role of the iris?
Understand the Question/Key Words: What does the iris do?
Predict the Answer: It opens and closes the pupil (controls amount of light, if you remember).
Answer: (B) It says to open and close the pupil and regulate the entrance of light. Choice (A) is way off. Be careful of (C)—the iris does not project light onto the retina. Choices (D) and (E) are not true and not close to your answer.
42.The nature-nurture controversy concerns
Understand the Question/Key Words: Which is more important: genes or environment?
Predict the Answer: Inborn and external processes determine behavior.
Answer: (C) It’s the closest to yours: “inborn processes” (genes) and “external stimuli” environment. Be careful of (A): it is a similar idea, but not the same. Choice (B) is way off base, (D) is a silly trap answer (using the words natural and nurture to lure you), and (E) doesn’t answer the question at all.
66.Prior to the fall of the Berlin wall, East Berlin schools de-emphasized the individuality of the student. As a result, many of the children from those schools tend to have a(n)
Understand the Question/Key Words: What happens if kids are taught to not be individuals?
Predict the Answer: They depend on others for their self-identity and self-esteem.
Answer: (D) They have an external locus of control—looking to others for their self-esteem and self-identity. Choices (A) and (B) are not close to yours (no optimism, pessimism). Choice (C) is the opposite of what you want, and (E) is just filler.
85.A prototypic example of a category is called a(n)
Understand the Question/Key Words: A major example of something is called what?
Predict the Answer: I don’t know—a major example.
Answer: (E) Exemplar—a major example. Choice (A) does not mean a major example. Choice (B) is only a feature, not an example of the whole category. Choice (C) is weak. Don’t pick (D)! It’s a verbal trap.
Drill 4: Essay Drill
Here Is Our Work It, Chart It, Count It, and Sketch It:
1.One of the major approaches to learning is classical conditioning.
A.Explain the process of classical conditioning , defining and illustrating all necessary terms. Show how classical conditioning could be used to
(1)Condition a monkey to “appreciate” only the works of certain artists
(2)Teach a group of students a mathematical concept
B.Explain how both extinction and spontaneous recovery transpire . Use one of the above examples to illustrate.
Drill 5: POE
4.B
Can obese people have fewer fat cells than average-weight people?
27.B
Your key word from the question is “connectionist approaches.” Would connectionists think things occurred in individual segments or in a bunch of networks simultaneously?
47.A
Your key word is “chunking.” Even if you don’t remember this memory technique, (A) sounds more like chunking than (B).
85.C
Your key word is “person-centered psychotherapy.” Even without that clue, suppressing negative feelings of a client or using a didactic approach are not typically the chosen methods of most psychotherapists.
92.B
Even without a clue, it’s understood in the field of psychology that counselors do not do either (A) or (C) for clients.
CHAPTER 5 DRILL
1.D
A cognitive psychologist is primarily interested in thought processes and products, and (D), involving word association, is most directly connected to such processes and products. Choice (A) is more the province of biological psychologists, (B) that of humanistic psychotherapists, (C) that of clinical psychotherapists or behaviorists, and (E) is more of interest to developmental psychologists.
2.C
The idea of tabula rasa is most closely associated with the philosopher John Locke. Choice (A), David Hume, is a philosopher who speculated on the nature of knowledge and perception; (B), Charles Darwin, is more closely identified with the theory of natural selection and evolution of species; (D), Sigmund Freud, was the founder of psychoanalytic theory; and (E), Erich Fromm, was one of the theorists influenced by Freud.
3.B
The concept of dualism refers to the division of the world and all things in it into two parts: body and spirit. Choice (C) refers to two ways of conceptualizing the structure and function of the mind and (E) to two different types of experimental variables.
4.D
Humanistic psychologists are primarily concerned with the impact of free will on behavior. Choice (A), childhood experiences, are emphasized in the psychoanalytic approach. Choice (B), biological predispositions, refers to either the biological/medical model or the behavioral-genetics approach. The cognitive approach focuses on how maladaptive thoughts, (C), can influence behavior, and the social-cognitive approach centers on the interaction of cultural experiences, (E), and behavior.
5.C
Proponents of the psychoanalytic or psychodynamic approach believe that the source of all current trauma can be traced back to childhood repressed memories. Choice (A), the cognitive approach, stresses the importance of thought processes and schemas in evaluating behaviors. Choice (B), behaviorists, believe in the power of learning and other environmental influences on behavior. Choice (D), the social cultural perspective, focuses instead on the culture of individuals and how it shapes them into who they are; (E), the medical/biological approach, seeks physiological answers in brain and body chemistry to explain behavior.
6.B
Circle the key words behavior and learned. These words indicate that the answer is associated with behaviorism. The person synonymous with behaviorism is B.F. Skinner, (B).
7.E
First, eliminate anything that is not a defense mechanism: self-actualization, (B), and consciousness, (D). Because denial is a state that dismisses an event as unimportant or trivial, but does not involve the individual not remembering what happened, you can eliminate (A). Projection is placing one’s problems onto someone else’s actions or emotions. This is not the case in this situation, so cross out (C). The answer choice left is repression, (E), the correct answer; repression is a defense mechanism in which the subconscious keeps painful memories from surfacing.
8.C
Carl Rogers is one of the major players in the humanistic approach to psychology, so the correct answer is (C). He coined the term unconditional positive regard (A), meaning a therapist’s proper regard toward his patients, always viewing them in a positive light. However, this is not a psychological approach. Cognitive psychology is focused on cognition and thought processes. While maladaptive thoughts are part of treating the whole person, it is not the only component of what makes up a person, so eliminate (B). The sociocultural components of a person (D) are also another component of an individual’s experience, but Carl Rogers sought to treat the individual rather than systemic problems. Behaviorism (E) is associated with B.F. Skinner.
9.E
According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, the physiological needs of a person, such as the needs for food and water, are at the base of the pyramid. Maslow suggested that if a person cannot have these basic needs satisfied, it is much more difficult to accomplish a sense of belonging, esteem, and potentially self-actualization.
10.B
Behavioral genetics often involves the study of identical twins separated at birth. This allows researchers to examine the contributions of genetics vs. environment in the development of various traits.
CHAPTER 6 DRILL
1.D
By definition, a double-blind experimental design is one in which neither the researchers nor the experimental subjects know whether the subjects have been assigned to an experimental group or a control group; this is done to minimize the chance that either the researchers or the subjects will influence the results through their own expectations (researchers) or by trying to act in accordance with what is thought to be desired (subjects). Choice (B) describes a single-blind experimental design; (E) is completely nonsensical.
2.B
In a normal statistical curve, about 68 percent of all scores will fall within one standard deviation of the mean; this includes scores both above and below the mean. Choice (A) is the percentage that would occur between the mean and one standard deviation above or below it only; (C) is the percentage that would occur within two standard deviations of the mean.
3.B
This is the definition of a Type II error—concluding there is no difference when in fact there is a difference. Choice (A) is the definition of a Type I error. Choice (E) is an erroneous conclusion drawn when, in fact, a Type I error has been made.
4.C
All of the other answers are standard tenets for designing and carrying out ethically acceptable research. Choice (C) has nothing to do with ethics, though it would not be very good for the research design in another way—if both the subjects and the researchers knew which of the former would be part of the experimental group, there would be a great likelihood of expectancy effects confounding the study.
5.B
A correlation of —0.84 implies that as one variable increases, the other is likely to decrease—positive correlations indicate that two variables vary directly, while negative correlations indicate that two variables vary inversely. Remember the famous research statement, “correlation does not imply causation,” and you’ll know that neither (D) nor (E) is correct.
6.C
The behavior of the subjects is measured here as the outcome of the study. The control and independent variables in this study are the violent vs. nonviolent videogames and the behavior supposedly “depends” on which games were played. Therefore, the behavior of the subjects is the dependent variable, (C). Of course, there are most likely some confounding variables and possibly some sampling bias in this study, but the behavior must be classified as the dependent variable. Perhaps all the subjects were young teens, or some participants signed up because they enjoy playing videogames. These would be examples of confounding variables.
7.D
External validity measures the real-life applicability of an experimental study. The other forms of validity measure how well the experiment itself is designed, but do not measure what might be true outside of the experiment. Reliability measures whether one gets the same results across tests or among raters.
8.D
Circle the key words here: different regions and socioeconomic statuses. Since the study seeks to look at different backgrounds and regions of the country, they are seeking to measure a large cross-sectional population. Longitudinal studies measure the same subjects over a long period of time, and there is no lapse in time here, so eliminate (A). There is not enough information about the design of this study to know if it is experimental or not (though it’s most likely correlational), so eliminate (B) and (C), as well. Choice (E), a case study, studies only one subject or a few subjects at a time. This is not true of this study, so the correct answer is (D).
9.E
As you most likely noticed, there are many things wrong with this method of procuring subjects for a study. Eliminate (A) because there is a pre-screening bias with weight-loss studies. People who respond to this ad most likely already want to or are trying to lose weight. The answer cannot be (B) because the people inquiring about the ad have control over whether they participate in the study, so they are self-selecting. The selection bias is also present here because these ads are only in New York City buses and subways. Many people visit New York City, but this is not a representative area of the entire country. Therefore, eliminate (C). The healthy user bias may or may not be as large of a factor here. However, potential subjects who already engage in a healthy lifestyle or in the process of losing weight can make this supplement look more effective than with an unhealthy subject. Eliminate (D). A representative bias is not a real term. What any researcher hopes to have is a representative sample, which will most likely not happen by attracting subjects from a subway ad. Therefore, the correct answer is (E).
10.A
A normal curve for a bell curve is to have most of the data around the middle of a graph, creating a symmetrical bell shape. Since this is not the case, eliminate (C). If the peak of a bell curve is not centered but rather in the lower end of the chart, it is called a positive skew. If the curve sits to the right of the graph’s center, it is a negative skew. The curve described here is a positive skew since many subjects scored low totals. The correct answer is (A).
CHAPTER 7 DRILL
1.B
Damage to Broca’s area, which is on the left side on the frontal lobe of the cortex, controls the muscles of speech. Choice (A), repetition of the speech of others, is often referred to as echolalia. Choice (C), the loss of the ability to visually integrate information, or prosopagnosia, is often the result of damage to the occipital lobe. Choice (D), the loss of the ability to comprehend speech, refers to damage in the Wernicke’s area of the temporal lobe, and (E), the inability to solve verbal problems, stems from some kind of damage to the left hemisphere.
2.D
The dendrites are attached to the cell body, and their purpose is to receive signals and information from other neurons, usually by receiving neurotransmitters; these signals will determine whether or not the neuron will “fire.” Choice (A) is the function of the terminal buttons, (B) is that of the myelin sheaths, (C) is that of the cell body, and (E) is that of the axon hillock.
3.C
The cerebellum is the part of the brain most involved with maintaining balance and muscular strength and tone. Choice (A) is the part of the brain that controls heart rate, swallowing, breathing, and digestion; (B) is the part, in most people, that is specialized for spatial and intuitive processing; (D) are involved in processing visual input; and (E) is the brain’s primary relay station for sensory information.
4.C
GABA is the neurotransmitter most associated with inhibitory neural processes; the others generally act to excite neurons further.
5.A
The phenotype is the actual observable trait or behavior that results from a specific genetic combination. Due to dominant and recessive trait expressions, the phenotype can represent more than one specific possible genotype, or genetic contribution, which (E) is talking about. Choice (C) is the definition of a gene itself.
6.C
The hypothalamus, part of the limbic system, controls motivated behaviors such as hunger, thirst, and sex. Choice (A), the thalamus, routes sensory information to the sensory areas of the brain; (B), the pons, connects the lower brain regions with the higher functioning areas of the brain. Choice (D), the amygdala, controls fear and aggression via the limbic system, and (E), the association areas of the brain, match existing information with incoming information already stored in the brain.
7.B
Myelin is an insulating sheath wrapped around the axons of neurons. White matter in the central nervous system is composed of myelinated axons; thus, a reduction in myelination would result in a decrease in white matter and neuronal insulation—(A) and (E), as symptoms, can be eliminated. Gaps in the myelin sheath (called nodes of Ranvier) allow depolarization of the axon and conduction of neuronal signals along the length of the axon. Myelination speeds the movement of the action potential along the length of the axon in a process called saltatory conduction. Choice (C) would be a symptom and can be eliminated; a reduction in myelination would decrease (not increase) saltatory conduction (which makes (B) the correct answer choice). This would decrease sensation, as sensory information from the peripheral nervous system would be hindered from reaching the central nervous system. Choice (D) is a symptom and can be eliminated.
8.D
The cerebellum, located behind the pons and below the cerebrum, receives input from the primary motor cortex in the forebrain and coordinates complex motor function, making (D) correct. The frontal lobes contain the primary motor cortices, which are responsible for initiating movement, but do not coordinate complex motor functions, so (A) is wrong. The occipital lobes are responsible for vision, ruling out (B), and the reticular activating system is responsible for arousal and wakefulness, which eliminates (C). The temporal lobes are involved in processing sensory input related to visual memories, language comprehension, and emotion, so it’s not (E).
9.D
The pons is located below the midbrain and above the medulla oblongata, and it connects the brain stem and the cerebellum. Along with the medulla, the pons controls some autonomic functions and plays a role in equilibrium and posture, but it is not associated with the experience of emotion, so (D) is correct. The amygdala, located in the temporal lobe, is part of the limbic system, and it is responsible for processing information about emotion, which means that (A) and (B), which are associated with emotion, can be eliminated. The amygdala and temporal lobe both send projections associated with the experience and regulation of emotional expression to the prefrontal cortices of the frontal lobe, and so (E) can be ruled out. The hypothalamus links the nervous system to the endocrine system, and it also plays a role in emotion, which allows (C) to be cut.
10.C
The neuron starts at a resting potential, so eliminate (D) and (E). If the neuron reaches the threshold potential, it will depolarize during the action potential and then repolarize to regain stability. Eliminate (A), since hyperpolarization is in between depolarization and repolarization. During the refractory period, there is a period of hyperpolarization, a slight dip below the resting potential, before it returns to the resting potential. This eliminates (B), making (C) the correct answer.
CHAPTER 8 DRILL
1.B
The specific pattern of brain waves known as sleep spindles is characteristic of stage 2 sleep, and it is associated with a relaxation of the skeletal musculature. Stage 1 sleep and REM sleep characteristically show the smaller, less regular theta waves, and stage 3 and 4 sleep are both more likely to show the longer, slower delta waves.
2.B
Subliminal information is presented just below the threshold. This information is often referred to as imperceptible, yet it is believed to influence behavior. Choice (A), immediate recognition of the stimuli, refers to the absolute threshold. Choice (C) mentions the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon, which is another kind of preconscious processing, but the inability of a stimulus to be on the tip of the tongue would not be an indication of its presence. There is no evidence that there is proactive interference or that it is slower in a matched-pairs trial, so eliminate (D) and (E).
3.C
Though the natural day/night cycle of humans and most other organisms matches the 24-hour cycle of the Earth and Sun, if all cues (such as sunshine) are removed, humans and many other organisms tend to follow a free-running rhythm that cycles approximately every 25 hours, which can be demonstrated through varying body temperature and hormonal levels.
4.E
There is no evidence that there is any distinction between what kinds of concerns give rise to nightmares versus night terrors. The hypothesis that one of the functions of dreams is to express conscious or unconscious concerns has its roots in Freudian or psychoanalytic theory, and it is only one of a number of competing theories of dream function, none of which has yet proven conclusive. Choices (A), (B), (C), and (D) all represent characteristic differences between nightmares and night terrors.
5.E
Cocaine is a strong stimulant, not a narcotic. Narcotics, such as those mentioned in (A), (B), (C), and (D), are derived originally from the opium poppy and tend to have analgesic and relaxation effects that depress the central nervous system.
6.A
Alcohol is a depressant that inhibits neural activity, so eliminate (D). GABA receptors in the central nervous system respond to GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter. Alcohol acts on GABA receptors, inhibiting neuronal signaling. Chronic alcohol consumption causes a down-regulation of GABA receptors; therefore, once the artificial depressant (alcohol) is removed from the system, the CNS no longer has an inhibitory influence and excito-neurotoxicity occurs, which can result in seizures and tremors, so (A) is the answer. Alcohol is a depressant and does not stimulate the autonomic nervous system, so (B) cannot be correct. While alcohol consumption does promote dopamine release in the nucleus accumbens (which stimulates the reward pathway in the brain and helps to explain why alcohol is addictive), and cessation of alcohol consumption would surely lead to a decrease in dopamine, this does not explain the physical symptoms of withdrawal described in the question stem, ruling out (C). While alcohol is a depressant, decreasing GABA activity would be excitatory, not inhibitory. Furthermore, this explanation would not account for the symptoms seen in alcohol withdrawal, and so (E) can be eliminated.
7.B
The doctor needs to ask more questions before diagnosing the patient, but his or her first thought should be insomnia or sleep apnea. None of the other terms listed in the answer choices constitutes periods of wakefulness during the night. Narcolepsy is overwhelming periods of sleep needed during the day, so eliminate (A). Somnambulism and night terrors happen during sleep, so even though the person seems to be active, they would not report being awake, eliminating (C) and (E). Paradoxical sleep occurs during dreaming, so eliminate (D). The correct answer is (B), sleep apnea.
8.C
The question does not mention that the woman is in any state of psychological dependence or addiction, so eliminate (A) and (B). Her body has grown tolerant to the drug, as shown by her dosage being increased twice, but that is not the reason for this increase in her blood pressure. Diuretics are one class of hypertension medications, but again, this does not account for her blood pressure increase. You can cross out (D) and (E). The clear reason for this increase is that she forgets to take her medication, and the physical symptom that results is an example of physical dependence, choice (C).
9.E
Paradoxical sleep occurs during dreaming. The mind is active, but the paradox is that the body remains almost still. REM sleep represents this sleep state.
10.A
Stages 3 and 4 are the deepest stages of sleep and, over the course of the night, the cycles contain less and less of them until the cycles contain mostly REM. The REM period can last up to approximately an hour toward the morning hours. The correct answer is (A).
CHAPTER 9 DRILL
1.C
If the individual hits the button to indicate that he has seen a particular stimulus when it was not present, this is called a false alarm.
2.B
Choice (B) is the only one that contains the five basic taste sensations—bitter, salty, sweet, sour, and umami; relative combinations of these result in the full range of taste sensations. Choice (C) refers to types of touch sensations and (D) to the five basic food groups!
3.D
Know your retinal receptor cells; the rods are sensitive to low light conditions and to movement, while the cones are responsible for color vision and work best at higher illumination levels. Choice (A) contains two other types of cells found in the retina, but not the ones that make the distinction noted here. The same is true of the ganglion cells, (B), and osmoreceptors sense thirst, anyway. In (E), mechanoreceptors sense physical touch and ossicles are bones of the middle ear.
4.C
Among the Gestalt principles of perception, continuity refers to our tendency to perceive fluid or continuous forms preferentially, rather than jagged or irregular ones—we would tend to see an image as two lines that “cross” at a point, rather than as two angles sharing a vertex. Choices (A) and (D) are two other Gestalt perceptual principles—proximity and similarity, respectively, and (E) refers to binocular disparity, a depth perception cue.
5.A
Weber’s law relates to the issue of thresholds in sensation and perception. The law states that stimuli need to vary by a constant proportion if we are to distinguish among the stimuli. Recognition of an imperceptible amount of perfume, (B), relates to the issue of absolute threshold. People not attending to more than one stimulus at a time, (C), focuses on selective attention. The ability to tell the difference between 20- and 100-watt bulbs 50 percent of the time refers again to the absolute threshold. All auditory stimuli being the same above a certain frequency, (E), negates frequency theory in audition.
6.B
The tympanic membrane (also known as the eardrum), located in the middle ear, generates vibrations that match the sound waves striking it, so (B) is correct. Vibrations generated in the tympanic membrane pass through three small bones—the malleus (hammer), the incus (anvil), and the stapes (stirrup); these bones magnify the incoming vibrations by focusing them onto a structure known as the oval window, which means that (D) and (E) are wrong. Once the vibrations pass through the oval window, they enter the cochlea, a fluid-filled spiral structure in the inner ear, so (C) can be eliminated. The base of the cochlea is lined with a long, fluid-filled duct known as the basilar membrane, which rules out (A). Sound waves passing along the basilar membrane cause it to move up and down, stimulating hair cells in the organ of Corti. These hair cells, in turn, connect with the acoustic, or auditory nerve.
7.C
The axons of ganglion cells in the retina make up the optic nerve, which carries visual information to the brain, so (C) is correct. Photoreceptors such as rods and cones are specialized cells in the retina that transduce light energy into nerve cell activity and synapse with bipolar cells, but none of those are a part of the optic nerve, which rules out (A), (B), and (E). The fovea is the area of highest visual acuity and contains a high concentration of cones, which are a type of photoreceptor and do not comprise the optic nerve, thereby eliminating (D).
8.A
Gestalt psychology proposes that humans tend to see objects in their entirety, and our visual processing systems and brain will superimpose a larger organization or structure that makes holistic sense. The “shapes” are technically composed of a series of unconnected lines, but according to Gestalt psychologists, humans are more likely to use both top-down and bottom-up processing to perceive them as a complete circle or a complete rectangle, so (A) is the answer. Bottom-up processing begins with the sensory receptors and works up to the complex integration of information occurring in the brain; while bottom-up processing is a requirement of perceiving the lines in the figure, it does not explain why we see two shapes instead of perceiving many unconnected lines, which makes (B) incorrect. Parallel processing refers to the brain’s capability to process multiple sensory inputs simultaneously, and Weber’s law explains how much two stimuli must differ in order for their difference to be perceptible; neither accounts for the phenomenon described in the question stem, and so (C) and (D) are both wrong. Summation, also referred to as frequency summation, is related to neuronal signal conduction, when the combined polysynaptic potential of multiple excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters determines whether or not an action potential is generated, thereby eliminating (E).
9.D
Oddly enough, there is not a triangle drawn, but Claire reports seeing a triangle because people have a natural tendency to want to see closed figures as opposed to incomplete figures. This supports the law of closure. She could have said she sees three incomplete concentric discs, but her mind configured it in a way that organizes the information as a closed, complete figure.
10.B
When Laretta sits down in class and eventually forgets about the odor, this is known as habituation. However, when the stimulus is removed and then re-presented (e.g., when she leaves the class and returns to notice the smell again), this is known as dishabituation. The correct answer is (B).
CHAPTER 10 DRILL
1.B
The fact that the dog is now exhibiting a fear response to any moving, wheeled vehicle represents a stimulus generalization. Choice (A) is the opposite process—if the dog was originally struck by a blue van of a certain make, for example, and did not show a fear response to any vehicle but that type of blue van. Choice (C) refers to the process whereby a conditioned response was made extinct by removing a conditioned stimulus, but might be elicited by a presentation of that stimulus at a later time. Choice (D), backward conditioning, occurs when an unconditioned stimulus is presented before a conditioned one and has nothing to do with this situation.
2.D
Second-order conditioning occurs when a previously conditioned stimulus—originally neutral, but now response-eliciting—acts as an unconditioned stimulus and is paired with a new neutral stimulus to be conditioned; eventually, this second stimulus is successful at eliciting a conditioned response. In (D), the rabbit was conditioned to fear the musical tone; then the musical tone was paired with a flashed light; and eventually the flashed light elicited fear even in the absence of the tone. Choice (A) is an example of conditioned taste aversion; (B) is a simple classic conditioning paradigm; (C) is stimulus generalization; and (E), which may be a result of social learning, does not apply to this situation.
3.C
A variable-ratio reinforcement schedule is one in which the ratio of responses to reward is variable and therefore unpredictable. Although the original conditioning may take longer, the response is quite resistant to extinction. In a fixed-ratio schedule (A), rewards always come after a certain number of correct responses; learning is quick but so is extinction, as it is easy to determine when the reinforcement schedule is no longer operative. This can also be said for (E), a continuous schedule. Choice (B), fixed-interval schedules, with rewards presented after a set time period, have a similar learning/extinction profile to fixed-ratio schedules. Choice (D), variable-interval schedules, with rewards presented at variable time periods, are more resistant to extinction than fixed-interval schedules but not as resistant as variable-ratio schedules.
4.A
The number of neurons does not increase with learning; in fact, the number of neurons is at its highest for most animals at birth—neurons do not reproduce under normal circumstances. However, they do grow in size and number of connections, alter the strength of already existing connections, and produce higher levels of neurotransmitters as a response to learning. Neurons that wire together, fire together.
5.A
Though there are many social or observational learning situations that involve rewards or punishments, Bandura’s experiments showed that such learning can occur even if there were no rewards or punishments—that is, consequences—to the observed behaviors. According to Bandura, attention to the behavior, retention of it, the ability to reproduce it, and the motivation to reproduce it at some point are what is necessary for observational learning.
6.B
Operant conditioning is accomplished when someone receives a reward after performing a task; after the person has performed the task and received the reward enough times, they will perform the task without the reward, as (B) asserts. Choice (A), vicarious reinforcement, involves watching another person receive a reward for his or her behavior; there is no mention of Jay being motived by other people getting rewarded. Choice (C), an innate behavior, is one that does not need to be conditioned and therefore not what is being described in the question stem. Choice (D), classical conditioning, is accomplished by pairing two stimuli, one that is neutral with another that is unconditioned. Over time, the neutral stimulus becomes the conditioned stimulus. Because the question is not describing the pairing of two stimuli, nor is a stimulus presented before the behavior, classical conditioning does not explain the behavior described in the question stem. Choice (E), observational learning, involves the observation of a behavior or set of behaviors and a subsequent modification of behavior on the part of the observer in modeling what they’ve seen.
7.B
Negative reinforcement occurs when an unpleasant stimulus is removed. Remember, negative is equivalent to taking something away from a situation and positive is equivalent to adding something in reinforcement terms. Choice (A) describes negative punishment, since Stephanie’s weekend privileges are revoked for the next weekend. Choice (B) works because the negative stimulus, taking out the trash, is removed for doing something positive. In (C), Ben receives positive reinforcement because he is rewarded with a pleasant stimulus for having done good work on his project. Choice (D) is another example of negative punishment because the dog does an undesirable behavior and the owner removes himself from contact. Choice (E) introduces something unpleasant to the situation, an example of positive punishment. The correct answer is (B).
8.B
The care team does not want the patient to develop a taste aversion to food staples or favorite foods. The unconditioned stimulus in this case would be the chemotherapy, but the patient would likely associate the foods (a neutral stimulus) with the nausea. While stimulus generalization is part of the concept of taste aversion, the care team is trying to keep the association from occurring in the first place, not keeping it from becoming generalized before the connection is in place.
9.A
When dealing with periods of time, always think of “interval” to decipher reinforcement schedules. For number of instances, think “ratio.” In this scenario, the mail comes consistently at the same time every day, so it must be an interval schedule, eliminating (C) and (D). Choice (E) is incorrect because continual reinforcement is a reward for every single instance, and she doesn’t receive mail every time she goes to the mailbox. Since the time interval between mail deliveries is consistent, this is a fixed-interval schedule. The correct answer is (A).
10.D
The process of teaching a skill through gradually molding specific behavior is called shaping, (D). Kevin rewards the dog for accomplishing intermediate steps along the way, which shapes Muka’s behavior to learn a new trick.
CHAPTER 11 DRILL
1.B
Visual sensory memory is referred to as iconic, and auditory sensory memory is called echoic. Iconic memory has a shorter duration than auditory memory, making (A) inaccurate. Visual and auditory memory have approximately the same capacity before encoding, so eliminate (C). The phone number read out loud (echoic) should have a longer duration than visually presented information, so eliminate (D). Choice (E) is wrong because if both auditory and visual information are presented at the same time, auditory information is more likely to be transferred to long-term memory.
2.D
The principle of context-dependent memory states that information is more likely to be recalled if the attempt to retrieve it occurs in a situation similar to the situation in which it was first encoded. Choice (A) refers to the process of new information pushing old information out of short-term memory; (B) to the grouping of items of information in order to better hold them in short-term memory; (C) to organizing short-term memory items in order to transfer them to long-term memory; and (E) to the memory for motoric skills and habits.
3.E
Prosody is the term given to the tones and inflections added to language that elaborate meaning with no word alterations. Choice (A), syntax, refers to the set of rules in a language for arranging meaningful sounds into words; (B) is one step further up from syntax—the rules that govern the arrangement and formation of words into meaningful phrases and sentences; (C) indicates the study of the smallest units of speech sounds in a language that are still distinct from one another; and (D) refers to the meaning of chosen words, not their expressed tone.
4.C
Telegraphic speech is a common occurrence in toddlers who are combining words for the first time; it consists of two- or three-word utterances that are composed mostly of salient nouns, verbs, and adjectives with an absence of articles, conjunctions, and prepositions, and a limited use of pronouns. All of the answers except (C) involve two- or three-word utterances that fit that definition; (C) is an example of a holophrase—a single-word utterance of younger children that has a broad meaning.
5.A
Divergent thinking is the name we give to the problem-solving process used when there are many possible solutions. In contrast, (B) is the process used when the problem has only one solution, such as is the case with most math equations. The intelligence quotient, (C), was originally conceived of as a ratio of mental age over chronological age, multiplied by 100; this was determined by comparing performance to that of others over a range of problem-solving tasks, which might involve both divergent and convergent abilities.
6.C
This type of knowledge is a fact to be recalled, so it must be part of the explicit memory. Eliminate (A), (B), and (E). Episodic memory refers to memories the person has experienced, and semantic memory is the memory of facts and figures (remember, semantic is meaning-making). No one living today was around to experience Abraham Lincoln’s presidency, so it cannot be episodic. The fact is, instead, semantic. The correct answer is (C).
7.A
Stefano’s knowledge of Spanish is interfering with his effort to speak German. In other words, his prior knowledge is hindering his ability to retain new knowledge, so this is an example of proactive interference.
8.B
Ben cannot get past this physics problem because he is approaching it the same way instead of thinking outside the box. This is known as a mental set, (B). Functional fixedness is a type of mental set; however, it is specifically concerning an object’s intended use versus its other creative uses, so eliminate (A). A representativeness heuristic is using a prototypical representation of an image or concept to judge a particular case, so eliminate (C), and insight learning refers to having a “flash of insight” solving a problem all at once. The question does not state that Ben has solved the problem, so eliminate (D). Framing involves false memories, so eliminate (E), as well. The correct answer is (B).
9.A
A representativeness heuristic is using a prototypical representation to judge a particular case. The mental image of a rose is an example of this, so (A) is the correct answer. Choice (B) is an example of an availability heuristic, which pulls upon readily available images or memories, such as seeing advertisements recently. Choice (C) shows someone who is not limited by functional fixedness to solve her dilemma. Choice (D) describes a confirmation bias, and choice (E) describes hindsight bias.
10.E
Sheldon is relating new knowledge to something he already understands. Functional fixedness refers to only using an object for its intended use, so (A) cannot be the answer. Choice (B) is more related to grouping pieces of information, and there is no evidence of this in the question. Maintenance rehearsal is related to short-term memory only and context-dependent memory depends on where the person is when he or she is learning the information. Choices (C) and (D) can be eliminated. The self-referential effect works here because Sheldon is relating the new information to something he is familiar with. This is choice (E).
CHAPTER 12 DRILL
1.A
Content validity is a measure of the degree to which material on the test is balanced and is measuring what it is said to measure. Choice (B) refers to another type of validity—predictive validity. Choices (C), (D), and (E) refer not to measures of test validity, but to measures of test reliability.
2.B
A projective test is one in which ambiguous stimuli, which are open to various kinds of interpretation, are presented, in contrast to the more common inventory-type tests in which participants answer a standard series of questions. The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is a well-known projective test; it involves a series of pictures of people in ambiguous relationships with other people, and the respondent’s task is to generate a story for each picture, including what led up to the scene in the picture, what is happening now, and what might occur next. All of the other choices are inventory-style tests in which participants are faced with standardized answer choices.
3.B
IQ scores over a population are distributed along a normal curve, with the mean, median, and modal scores at 100 and a standard deviation of roughly 15 to 16 points; therefore, a score of 85 would be located approximately one standard deviation below the mean. Choice (E) is deceptive, as the original definition of IQ as mental age divided by physical age multiplied by 100 makes it attractive, but physical age would have no effect on where an IQ score is located relative to established means, medians, modes, or standard deviations.
4.A
Test standardization is used to set the norms for a given population of subjects; these norms can then be used to compare the test results of groups or individuals with specific characteristics to the whole population. In order to set these norms, the test is administered to a (usually fairly large) standardization sample which, as much as is feasible, possesses characteristics reflective of the entire population. Choice (C) actually refers to the measurement of validity, (D) is more of a way of ensuring reliability on tests where scoring is not computerized, and (E) has more to do with the format of the test than the population.
5.E
Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences—not just verbal and mathematical, the dimensions measured by most intelligence tests—posits that there are measurable intelligences in all of the dimensions listed except for (E), which is a dimension added by two other theorists, Peter Salovey and John Mayer.
6.D
Reliability measures how consistent the results will be if the same subject takes the test multiple times. Choice (A) calls into question current vs. noncurrent practices, while (B) describes validity instead. Choice (C) should be true of any experiment. Choice (E) describes generalizability. The correct answer is (D).
7.B
A true/false or other type of multiple-choice question test is one that does not allow for much creativity, so you can eliminate (A). Since there is a very clear-cut answer to each question through multiple-choice responses, the correct answer is (B), inventory-type test. The test could be about the intelligence, environment, or hereditary information, but none of these are the name for a multiple-choice test, eliminating choices (C), (D) and (E).
8.A
There are many components to making sure a study is ethical, but the key component is that the subjects must be protected under confidentiality no matter what, (A). The subject should be informed fully as to the nature of the study, but there needs to be a slight element of deception for the experiment to be successful, eliminating (B). A double-blind study does not guarantee an ethical study (perhaps it is testing a drug that is not yet safe for human consumption), so eliminate (C). Validity and generalization have nothing to do with ethics, but rather effectiveness in what a test intends to measure internally and in a general population. Methodology is not included in these two terms, so eliminate (D) and (E). The correct answer is (A).
CHAPTER 13 DRILL
1.D
The Moro reflex in newborns is the startle response that involves the splaying of limbs in response to a falling sensation. Choice (A) is the neonatal reflex of grabbing anything placed in the hand; (B), the Babinski reflex, is produced when stroking the bottom of the neonate’s foot results in a splaying out of the toes; and (E) is the reflex that causes a newborn to turn in the direction of a touch on the cheek. While the orienting reflex of (C) may be elicited by a loud noise, it occurs whenever there is any other sudden change in the environment, as well.
2.B
The cognitive theory of Vygotsky stresses social and environmental, not just biological/maturational, factors as critical to development; he proposed the concept of a zone of proximal development, which is the range between the developed level of ability a child displays and the potential, or latent, level of ability a child is actually capable of. He further theorized that this latent level is hard to elicit due to a lack of optimal environmental circumstances. Choices (A), Jean Piaget, and (D), Sigmund Freud, created alternate theories of development; (C), Leon Festinger, is most closely identified with the theory of cognitive dissonance (see Chapter 18) and (E), Juliann Rotter, with the concept of locus of control (Chapter 15).
3.A
Erik Erikson’s psychosocial theory of development describes a series of “conflicts” or “tasks” at each stage of life, from infancy to old age. In his theory, the successful resolution of each developmental task results in the development of a certain ability or belief, which serves as the foundation for the resolution of the next “task.” The developmental task for school-age children is termed “industry vs. inferiority,” and the resolution of this stage produces a sense of competence in one’s own efforts and work. Choice (B) is the resolution of the task of early adulthood—“intimacy vs. isolation”; (C) is the resolution of the task of infancy—“trust vs. mistrust”; (D) is the resolution of the task of toddlerhood—“autonomy vs. shame/doubt”; and (E) is the resolution of the task of adolescence—“identity vs. role confusion.”
4.B
According to the developmental theory of Jean Piaget, a child of about five would generally be at the preoperational stage, characterized by both animism—the belief that all things are alive—and egocentrism—the ability to see the world only from one’s own point of view. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are other stages of Piaget’s developmental model. Choice (E) is a developmental stage in Sigmund Freud’s theory.
5.E
The theory of moral development, elaborated by Lawrence Kohlberg, divides such development into three levels—preconventional, conventional, and postconventional—each subdivided into two stages. At the first stage of preconventional morality, generally the first stage young children progress through, moral concerns are primarily motivated by the need to avoid punishment and to receive rewards. Choice (A) characterizes the next stage of the preconventional level; (B) is the first stage of the conventional level; and (C) is the first stage of the postconventional level. Choice (D) refers to the belief that everybody gets what they deserve, which is not one of Kohlberg’s levels.
6.C
An infant who is securely attached will feel secure when he is around his mother, as evidenced by his comfort when his mother is in the room. When she leaves the room, the infant cries, but is easily consoled upon her return. If the child were insecurely attached, his reaction would differ. In the “strange situation” experiment, the insecurely attached children had varied reactions. Some children did not react as much when the mother left the room, and other children did a combination of both behaviors (disorganized behavior). The correct answer is (C).
7.A
Conservation is a concept that the amount of a material is still the same in different forms. In this case, it is the same amount of water in both the cup and the vase, though the water level may change.
8.B
Knowledge of certain facts and figures is crystallized intelligence. Perhaps you reasoned your way to a good guess and chose fluid intelligence, but remember, fluid intelligence is mental agility, problem-solving ability, and other qualities that are not necessarily parroting back facts. Assimilation is a type of learning, incorporating information into mental schemas. Wisdom is knowledge that comes from life experiences.
9.D
Since Mira learns to understand that the object is in fact a bookshelf instead of a desk, she is accommodating this information, making adjustments to her already preexisting schema. If it were, in fact, a desk like she originally thought, this would have been assimilation. But it wasn’t, so you can cross out (E). Functional fixedness is a type of mental set, but there is no problem-solving in this question, so eliminate (A) and (C). Choice (B) is a milestone from Jean Piaget’s preoperational stage. The correct answer is (D).
10.E
Bandura’s name is synonymous with observational learning. Through this perspective, Bandura posited that gender roles are at least partially observed by the individual. Choice (A) alludes to a behavioral perspective since it involves learning, so eliminate (A). Choice (B) is also incorrect because Bandura was not concerned with genetics apart from socialization. Choice (C) is also an incomplete explanation for the complex subject of gender, aside from it not relating to Bandura’s theories. Choice (D) is too extreme with the word “only,” and does not address the observational nature of Bandura’s work. Only (E) is consistent with Bandura’s research.
CHAPTER 14 DRILL
1.D
Secondary drives, like secondary reinforcers, are learned by association with primary drives and primary reinforcers. Satisfying basic needs, as in (A), is a primary drive, as is the attempt to maintain homeostatic equilibrium, as in (B). Choice (C), instinct, refers to unlearned behaviors and (E), optimal arousal, refers to biological theory.
2.A
The Yerkes-Dodson law relates levels of arousal and task difficulty. Here, a high-difficulty task (SAT) requires low levels of arousal (calm and relaxed). Arousal and obtaining a primary reinforcer, as in (B), is an inaccurate comparison for this theory. Tasks related to homeostasis, as in (C), involve drive-reduction theory. Remaining calm and addressing envelopes, as in (D), is a low-arousal and low-difficulty task.
3.A
Angiotensin is a chemical messenger released when the volumetric receptors that monitor extracellular body levels, particularly in the circulatory system, sense low fluid levels, and it acts directly on brain receptors to stimulate thirst. Choice (B) is an opiate-like brain chemical that binds to neural receptor sites, but it has nothing to do with thirst; neither does the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (E); and (C) is a thyroid, not thirst, hormone.
4.B
An extrinsic factor is one that motivates behavior but does not originate within the individual performing the behavior; it instead originates from the outside world. In Rhoni’s case, feeling the need to excel at her career in order to keep up her family’s lifestyle and her parents’ opinion of her qualifies as being primarily from outside of her (though she may enjoy the lifestyle herself). Choice (A) would be a factor that originated within the individual displaying the behavior; (D) and (E) would also describe such internal factors.
5.C
As compared to Type-B personalities, Type-As have a greater arousal response overall to stress and a greater tendency to seek it out, as in (B); they also tend to be more competitive, as in (E), more prone to stress-related physical conditions, as in (D), and to feel a greater sense of being pressed for time, as in (A). Type-As also tend to anger more quickly (part of being easier to arouse), so they would be less likely to anger slowly.
6.A
According to drive-reduction theory, the drive is hunger in this case, so to reduce the need, Sanju needs to eat something. Since she does this, theoretically, she will return to homeostasis, as in (A). Yes, she may be thirsty as well, but that is not stated in the question, nor will a donut necessarily cause thirst. The donut may increase insulin levels in the body, but it is not certain that they will be raised to unhealthy levels, so choice (A) is the only provable response.
7.D
The Yerkes-Dodson law and the opponent process theory are not theories of emotion, so eliminate (A) and (E). Jorge is able to cognitively appraise the situation to know he is not in danger. He is experiencing a physiological response to a stimulus, but the cognitive interpretation of that physiological response is the two-factor theory that Schachter and Singer posited. The James-Lange theory would not work here because the physiological response would lead to only one emotional output, most likely fear. Eliminate (B). The Cannon-Bard theory does not connect the cognitive interpretation of the physiological response either, so eliminate (C). The correct answer is (D).
8.E
The opponent-process theory explains how addiction can create this vicious cycle, in which the user takes increasingly more and more of a drug to achieve the original effect, while the opposite “lows” get lower and lower. Drug use is not an instinct, so eliminate (A). Similarly, you can eliminate (B) because there is nothing in the question concerning arousal. Choice (C) cannot be correct because the two-factor theory is one of emotion, and you can also cross out (D) because this exacerbated cycle would not exist in the drive-reduction theory. This leaves (E), the correct answer.
9.E
Suppressed appetite is not a symptom of chronic stress, though it may be one of acute stress, which lasts for only a short amount of time. Remember that chronic stress is defined as lasting for weeks, months, or even years.
10.B
The hypothalamus is mostly in charge of maintaining homeostasis in the body, (B). Choice (A) describes the thalamus, (C) the hippocampus, (D) the pituitary gland, and (E) the amygdala. The correct answer is (B).
CHAPTER 15 DRILL
1.B
In Freudian theory, the ego is the part of the mind that mediates between the wants/demands of the part of the mind known as the id, (C); the internal representation of rules, morals, and social obligations known as the superego, (A); and the realities of the outside world. The ego involves conscious thought and choice and attempts to find acceptable ways to satisfy desires. Choices (D) and (E) are not parts of the mind in Freudian theory; they are concepts from Jungian theory.
2.E
Reaction formation is the psychodynamic defense mechanism that involves the ego reversing the direction of a disturbing or unacceptable desire to make that desire safer and more acceptable, as when a person who unconsciously hates children might feel the need to volunteer at a day-care center. The other answers are all definitions of other defense mechanisms: (A) is displacement, (B) is regression, (C) is compensation, and (D) is rationalization.
3.D
Albert Bandura is identified with a social-cognitive, rather than psychodynamic, theory of personality; his theory does not concern itself very much with unconscious desires and mechanisms, as psychodynamic theories do, but rather focuses on an individual’s concepts and beliefs. Horney, Jung, Adler, and Erikson are all psychodynamic theorists who expanded on or modified Freud’s original conception of personality.
4.D
In the personality and therapeutic theories of Carl Rogers, self-actualization refers to the process by which an individual modifies and grows over time in ways that allow him/her to reach full potential and ability. To humanistic theorists, such as Rogers, self-actualization is the ultimate purpose of human existence. Choice (A) refers to the value we place on ourselves—often a product of self-actualization, but not the actual process. Choice (C), self-efficacy, refers to a person’s belief in his/her own competence in a given situation.
5.A
The 16PF (Personality Factor) Questionnaire, designed by Raymond Cattell, is designed specifically for investigating the traits, or primarily inherited, enduring, and situationally stable tendencies that govern individual personality. (Cattell theorized there were 16 basic traits, which his instrument purported to measure.) Choices (B) and (E) are intelligence tests—the Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale and the Weschler Intelligence Scale for Children, respectively. Choice (C) is the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual, Version Five, currently in use for identification and classification of mental/behavioral disorders, and (D) is analysis of variance, a statistical technique.
6.B
Anne is not very competent at riding a bike, which shows she has a low self-efficacy, so eliminate (A) and (C). However, she knows she is in control of getting better at riding a bike if she practices. This means that she has an internal locus of control; she has control over her improvements. The correct answer is (B).
7.E
The concept of the halo effect is that multiple positive attributes will surround a person who already possesses some. Since Lukas has good looks, grades, and athleticism, the halo effect suggests that he contains other positive attributes as well, such as being trustworthy. The correct answer is (E).
8.A
When Tanya kicks the ice instead of her coach or herself, she is showing displacement, since she directs her anger toward the ice. The correct answer is (A).
9.C
In Jung’s theory, the anima and animus are the male and female qualities that lie in each personality. This supports (C). Beware of the recycled Jungian language in (A) and (D). Neither is true, but test-makers hope that those key words might be enticing. Choice (B) describes Erikson’s trust vs. mistrust, and (E) is more of a humanistic viewpoint.
10.B
Cara feels good about herself, showing that she is exhibiting positive self-esteem, (B). The question does not show whether she is proficient at a task or not, so eliminate self-efficacy, (A). The self-concept is a larger umbrella including self-esteem, efficacy, schemata, etc., so eliminate (C) as well. Choices (D) and (E) are incorrect because those are defense mechanisms of psychoanalysis. The correct answer is (B).
CHAPTER 16 DRILL
1.C
This person is most likely experiencing a psychotic episode. Choices (B) and (D), obsessions and compulsions, refer to a different disorder. Choice (A), delusions, are relevant to psychosis, but they are beliefs not based in reality, and the question stem explicitly says he hears voices, not that he believes anything in particular. Choice (E), inceptions, is not a psychological concept. Only (C), hallucinations, fits the question stem.
2.B
Conversion disorder occurs when a psychological difficulty manifests itself as a deficit in physiological function in which there is no actual discernable physical problem. Choice (A), bipolar disorder, is characterized by alternating periods of depression and mania, and (E), paranoid disorder, by extreme mistrust and suspicion, often with feelings of persecution. Choice (C), an organic disorder, would be linked to an actual physical deficit, usually of the brain or nervous system.
3.E
Dissociative disorders, such as amnesia, fugue, or multiple personality disorder, are characterized by dysfunction of memory and disruption in the sense of identity. Choice (A) is more characteristic of phobias, (C) of obsessive disorders, and (D) of certain types of schizophrenia. Choice (B) might be descriptive of some individuals with dissociative disorders, but it is not a diagnostic criterion or a widely seen characteristic of the disorder (many with such disorders have quite extensive social networks).
4.C
Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that influences mood and seems to be present at lower-than-usual levels in many of those diagnosed with depression (at least, unipolar depression). Choice (A), acetylcholine, has, at least in some studies, been associated with the expression of bipolar behavior when present in greater-than-average amounts. Dopamine deficits have been implicated in Parkinson’s disease, and may be implicated in certain instances of schizophrenia, but not depression, so eliminate (E).
5.C
By DSM-5 definition, anxiety disorders are characterized by feelings of tension, nervousness, fear, and sometimes panic. All of the choices here qualify except for anxious personality disorder, which is made up.
6.D
The girl is most likely suffering from dissociative fugue (a type of dissociative disorder (D)), which causes her to experience personal amnesia. Sufferers of dissociative fugue tend to wander or travel and often establish new identities based on who they believe they are. Choice (A), somatoform disorder, involves physical illness or injury. Choice (B), delusional disorder, is a psychotic illness that is characterized by non-bizarre delusions, with no accompanying hallucinations, mood disturbances, or flattening of affect; furthermore, amnesia is not a symptom of a delusional disorder. Choice (C), personality disorder, is characterized by a set of personality traits that deviates from cultural norms, impairs functioning, and causes distress; there are three major clusters of personality disorders, none of which accurately explain the girl described in the question stem. Although it is possible that the girl’s symptoms are feigned in an attempt to seek attention, a possible symptom of histrionic personality disorder, the question stem would need to provide concrete information to draw this conclusion, which it does not. Also, there is no direct evidence of schizophrenia demonstrated in the question stem, so eliminate (E).
7.D
Conversion disorder is a somatoform disorder in which a person displays blindness, deafness, or other symptoms of sensory or motor failure without a physical cause, as best expressed by (D). Choice (A), a constant fear of illness, refers to hypochondriasis, not conversion disorder. Choice (B), panic attacks and severe anxiety, are symptoms of anxiety disorders, while conversion disorder is a type of somatoform disorder. Frequent vague complaints about physical symptoms, (C), is characteristic of somatization disorder and (E), religious obsessions, may remind you of religious conversion, but that is not the meaning of conversion in this question.
8.B
Schizoid personality disorder is classified under Cluster A personality disorders, (B). This person will likely be markedly detached from friends and family members and have a flat affect, whereas Cluster B disorders are more emotional and dramatic.
9.E
Many diagnoses like obsessive-compulsive disorder are diagnosed only in adulthood. This is a child, so this must be a neurodevelopmental disorder, narrowing options to (A) and (E). The child is not exhibiting impulsivity/hyperactivity or inattention, but rather restrictive behavior and difficulty in social situations since he is having difficulty engaging with peers. This is descriptive of ASD. The correct answer is (E).
10.D
Though body dysmorphic disorder can be interrelated with other diagnoses, such as anorexia nervosa, it is not categorized as a feeding disorder because it does not involve eating. Rather, it is characterized by obsessive thoughts about body parts the person believes are disproportionate or abnormally shaped. This may lead to disordered eating, but it is in the category of obsessive-compulsive and related disorders.
CHAPTER 17 DRILL
1.C
Client-centered therapy, as an outgrowth of the humanistic school of psychology, is very concerned with trying to understand the client’s view of the world and how it affects him or her, in order to facilitate the client’s own tendencies toward growth and fulfillment. Therapists utilizing this approach see accurate empathic understanding—the therapist’s ability to view the world through the eyes of the client—as critical to successful communication between client and therapist. While (A), psychoanalytic therapy, also considers communication and understanding the client’s view of the world important, it tends to discourage emotional or personal involvement with the patient through such empathy. Psychoanalytic therapists believe a stance of detachment is best for the encouragement of transference, which helps to reveal the nature of the patient’s conflicts. Choice (D), implosion therapy, is a behavioral approach with little emphasis on the kind of client-therapist relationship considered essential to client-centered therapy.
2.E
Behavioral approaches to therapy are concerned with treating maladaptive or troubling symptoms, rather than underlying causes, and in this school of thought, there are no hidden, “deep” underlying causes—the disordered behavior itself is the problem. As such, behavioral therapies have been most often used with those who seek to change specific behaviors, such as those who suffer from phobias. While behavioral approaches might be tried for individuals with some of the other conditions listed, the more symptom-oriented behavioral techniques are usually not the treatment of choice with conditions that involve more than just a specific maladaptive behavior and/or altered mental states.
3.B
Psychoanalytic therapy focuses on probing past defense mechanisms to understand the unconscious roots of problems; indeed, its practitioners believe that troubling behaviors or symptoms cannot possibly cease until a patient gains insight into such unconscious roots. In this approach, treating just symptoms through behavioral methods without addressing the underlying hidden causes will not result in a lasting “cure” and may instead result in symptoms returning or new ones manifesting. Choices (A) and (C) are not generally criticisms leveled at behavioral therapy by psychoanalysts; indeed, for those it’s the other way around—these are criticisms of psychoanalytic approaches often made by behaviorists. The criticism in (D) would more likely be made by humanistic or client-centered therapists.
4.B
Rational-emotive behavioral therapy, or simply rational-emotive therapy, is primarily associated with Albert Ellis, who formulated this cognitive approach, which concentrates on modifying incorrect thoughts or cognitions that lead to maladaptive emotional and behavioral responses. Choice (A), Julian Rotter, is associated with the concept of locus of control; (C), Abraham Maslow, with the concepts of hierarchy of needs and self-actualization; (D), Raymond Cattell, with a trait theory of personality and the 16PF Questionnaire; and (E), Rollo May, with the existential approach to psychotherapy.
5.A
Anticoagulants are not drugs used for psychotherapeutic purposes; they are, instead, used to modulate the ability of the blood to clot and form vessel blockages. Both (C) and (E) are classes of drugs that belong to the larger family of antidepressants; (B), anxiolytics, as the name implies, are used primarily for the reduction of anxiety; and (D), lithium salts, are useful in the treatment of some cases of bipolar disorder.
6.C
There is nothing systematic or progressive about going to the top of the Empire State Building on a first therapy session for acrophobia. Instead, the therapist is choosing a situation in which Judy will most likely have a very strong reaction at first, but will hopefully have less of a reaction the longer she realizes she will not fall off the ledge. This is a technique called flooding, (C). Choice (B) is not the answer because the therapist is not trying to condition Judy not to like something. Choice (D), implosion, is similar to flooding, but it uses visualization techniques instead of physically going to a location or confronting a stimulus. There is not a contract in the question stem either, eliminating (E).
7.D
A behavioral therapist will seek to modify behavior by extinguishing maladaptive behaviors and conditioning more adaptive ones. Therefore, extinction procedures will be used to modify behaviors. Choices (A), (B), and (C) are specific to psychoanalysis, while (E) is most closely associated with humanistic therapy. The correct answer is (D).
8.A
SSRIs are most commonly used as antidepressants. Therefore, they would most likely be used for depressive disorders.
9.C
A psychotherapist would most likely use free association, (C). Choices (A), (B), and (D) are techniques used in behavioral therapy, and (E) is used in humanistic therapy.
10.A
Carl Rogers is synonymous with humanistic therapy. If you were unsure, remember that he coined the phrase unconditional positive regard, so he was most concerned with treating other humans with the utmost respect and compassion. Hence, the term humanism came forth.
CHAPTER 18 DRILL
1.D
The fundamental attribution error is defined as the tendency of people to overestimate a person’s disposition and to underestimate the situational circumstances when evaluating another person’s behavior. Both (A) and (C) are examples of an internal locus of control. Choice (B), blaming a teacher for one’s failures, is an example of an external attribution. In evaluating her friend’s behavior, Karen is balancing personal and situational attributes, so eliminate (E) as well.
2.D
In the Asch conformity experiments, many factors influenced the degree to which an experimental subject would show conformity to the obviously wrong group opinion, but the subject’s age did not show a consistent effect in this regard. Choice (A) certainly did—unanimity was very important; only one dissenting opinion drastically reduced the tendency of the subject to go along with the rest of the group; (B), size of the group, has an influence in that it seems to take a group of at least three members for such conformity to be shown consistently; (C), the subject’s perception of his/her own social status versus that of the group, was important—subjects who perceived themselves as of low/medium status were much more likely to conform than those who perceived themselves as of high status; and (E), gender of the subject, was an influencing factor, with females more likely to conform than males.
3.D
The self-fulfilling prophecy refers to the scenario in the question—students randomly labeled as likely to experience significant jumps in academic test scores in the coming semester did indeed seem to perform to those expectations on those tests at the end of the semester. Choice (A), the Hawthorne effect, refers to the observation that students or workers who know they are being monitored tend to perform better, even if they do not know why they are being monitored. Choice (B), the Kandel effect, is associated with research into learning and neurophysiology in sea slugs; (C), cognitive dissonance, refers to the discomfort that comes from conflicting behavior and beliefs; and (E), the Ainsworth effect, comes from studies of attachment in human infants.
4.B
Diffusion of responsibility, also sometimes referred to as the bystander effect, occurs when every person in a crowded social situation defers to another to make the effort to mount a response to the situation. It can also occur when members of a group perform negative behaviors that no specific individual or individuals will take responsibility for. Choice (D), an altruistic orientation, usually refers to the decision-making paradigm in which individuals wish to maximize the outcome for others, but it could also be applied to this situation as a countervailing force to the diffusion of responsibility. Choice (A), illusory correlation, refers to the false presumption that certain groups are associated with certain stereotypes or behaviors, and (E), the just-world hypothesis, is the belief that because the world is basically fair, people deserve whatever befalls them, positive or negative. Choice (C), cognitive dissonance, deals with conflicting beliefs and behaviors, not responsibility.
5.B
The “foot-in-the-door” technique involves making requests in small increments that people are more likely to initially comply with, and then working from those up to bigger requests; the incremental approach seems to work better than “going for the whole ball of wax all at once.” This is what the teenager is trying to do in getting his curfew extended in small increments until he gets the curfew he actually wants. Choice (A) is an example of the “door-in-the-face” technique, in which one asks for much more than what one actually wants, expecting to be turned down; one can then ask for the smaller, “more reasonable” request, which is more likely to be granted. People also tend to be more likely to comply with or be persuaded by those they feel they are similar to, as in (D), or by those they will receive a desired reward from (hardly a surprise), as in (E).
6.C
The man who does not have health insurance in (A) thinks nothing bad will happen to him, which is known as an optimism bias. The woman observing the man who loses his house in (B) most likely feels for the man, but exhibits the just-world bias since she most likely thinks the man failed to act on obtaining health insurance. Choice (C) is the clearest example of the self-serving bias, since the toddler attributes building the block tower to herself, but blames the blocks instead of herself when they tumble to the ground. Remember, the self-serving bias is when a person takes credit for positive achievements and attributes something or someone else as the cause of negative ones. Choice (D) most clearly shows a self-fulfilling prophecy and the Rosenthal Effect, in which the teacher believes in Yuan, and he then goes and studies for his exam. Finally, (E) is an example of a situational attribution, in which the environment causes conditions that affect a large number of the residents described in the answer choice. The correct answer is (C).
7.A
Since both groups remained equal for a while, the group that had five members shows evidence of social loafing. The more people assigned to that side of the rope, the less force they thought they needed to exert individually. The three students on the other side of the rope felt more individually responsible and had increased need to contribute.
8.D
The child in this question exhibits the door-in-the-face technique to get what he wants from his parents. This technique is named for his parents metaphorically “slamming the door in his face” at his outrageous request of $100 per week. However, when he asks for less money, he is met with less resistance.
9.E
Stanley Milgram’s study involved a significant amount of deception, tricking the subjects into thinking they were participating in a study on learning. They played roles within the experiment, though this was not the point of the experiment, so eliminate (D). There is not a group in the experiment either, so conformity, dehumanization, and groupthink are not factors here either, eliminating (A), (B), and (C). The point of the experiment was to test obedience to the “experimenter” when he told the subject (the “teacher”) to administer what the subject believed to be an electric shock to the “learner” (a confederate to the experimenter in another room). A large percentage of subjects obeyed the experimenter and administered the highest level of electric shock. The correct answer is (E).
10.A
Though Bandura was measuring aggressive behavior in the children, the crucial part of the experiment was the children’s observation of the adults. If the children observed the adults behaving aggressively toward the bobo doll, they were more apt to act aggressively themselves. If they observed the adults behaving nonaggressively, they were also less likely to act aggressively.